(06-11-2025 10:19 AM)ThreeifbyLightning Wrote: (06-11-2025 10:00 AM)tanqtonic Wrote: (06-11-2025 09:48 AM)ThreeifbyLightning Wrote: Once again, tanq reads stuff and spouts off on things he doesn't understand.
Posse Comitatus Act prevents the military being used in a law enforcement capacity. In other words, they can not conduct investigations, detain people, and make arrests.
Section 12406 allows the use of military forces to support and protect federal agents who are doing that work referenced above and facilities. The wide scale attacks on federal agents and facilities are not only putting the lives of agents at risk it is prohibiting them from doing their sworn LE duties. Which is the whole point of the riots and attacks. Whether the government could force deploy more agents to the area to help provide that protection instead of the military is debatable. The 1811, 1801, 0080, etc agent/officer/security force is generally pretty small nationally and redeploying them from other parts of the country would risk security elsewhere, particularly given riots are now happening in other cities. I imagine this is the argument that would be made in court. The military force was needed because the intense attacks on LE and inability to pull other LE from other places due to the threat nationally.
Sorry, 12406 doesnt do that.
Try reading it. The only usage of 12406 bypassing a Governor was used when the state was in open and explicit defiance of Federal law.
Not only that, even when the Governor is bypassed, 12406 states that "Orders for these purposes shall be issued through the governors of the States". Shall. And amazingly -- that never happened.
Again, try reading it.
Every implementation of 12406 was done *with* the planning and cooperation of the state. That is required. The only bypass that has *ever* occurred for the last 90 years (until now) is when the state is in explicit and open defiance of Federal law. Which is the provision covered in c) of 12406.
I think the liberal California court will side with your view of this and it will be overturned on appeal if it gets that far. The law demonstrates that the President has the discretionary authority to make the decision.
He ahs the discretion to do so *within* the law, and bounds set out by the law. A fairly big distinction than what you claim.
And no, the law does not show he has that purely at his whim discretionary authority. Cite me a single case that says that.
Quote:And POTUS already illustrated he spoke to Newsom about doing this.
And the state of Cali, under oath, has said the opposite.
"51. 51. Over the course of the day, the Department of Defense (DOD) did not communicate directly with the Governor’s Office regarding any planned activation and deployment of California National Guard members. "
"52. At no time prior to issuing the memorandum to federalize the California National
Guard troops did the DOD seek approval from Governor Newsom to utilize California’s National Guard to protect federal agents and federal property, or otherwise notify or seek concurrence from the Governor or his office regarding the planned mobilization of the National Guard."
The response from the US on this -- crickets.
Are you sure you want to stake your ground in "POTUS already illustrated he spoke to Newsom about this"?
https://oag.ca.gov/system/files/attachme...t%20NG.pdf
Quote:So, what if in that conversation Newsom refused to do so? The statute states not that he has to agree or has any form of discretion or decision in the matter, it requires him to issue the orders,
There are no words in the statute requiring anything of the sort.
If you think I misread it, please point out those portions requiring him to issue the orders. I will consider them.
If Newsom refuses -- it goes to Court. Just like we see right now. At least in that sense the administration can tell the court with a straight face that they tried. Now? They cant. Stupid as fk move.
Quote:which he very clearly refused to do.
Ill refer you to paras. 51 and 52 above. You might want to back off on not just the word 'clearly', and not just the word 'refused' -- but the entire premise in the clause.
Quote:So, if he refused to do so at the President's order he's the one in violation of the law.
Nope. First, there doesnt seem to be any 'President's order'. Second, one cannot refuse to obey an order that was never made. Third, there is no requirement of a Governor to pass on those orders in the law.
Fourth, the statute very much reflects the limitations of calling up the guard, and the implications of the 10th amendment -- where the Governor is literally and explicitly the CinC of the state Natl Guard.
And that is *why* the *only* short circuits are in the statute -- 1) invasion; 2) rebellion; 3) the Feds cannot carry out their own law. And that is why the *only* time a Governor has been end runned in modern times was when Ike used the Natl Guard to enforce the Civil Rights Act, when Gov of Arkansas said that he would actively use the state to impede that enforcement, and the enforcement of court desegregation orders.
Quote:Also, it's interesting that California state law obfuscates the Governor's responsibility in this issue. Article 3.163 of the California State Code provides that the California adjutant general “shall issue all orders in the name of the Governor.” Hegseth called TAG prior to the deployment, but we don't know what was said. Did the TAG also refuse the order?
"60. The Adjutant General subsequently shared the DOD Order with the Governor’s
Office; however, at no time did the Governor or his Office provide consent to the mobilization or issue orders through the Governor mobilizing the Guard members."
He passed them to the Governor. as he should. The phrase you cite simply means that orders the Adj Gen issues have the same legal weight to the Guard that the Governor has. In things that are delegated to him, he makes that decsion in and with the weight of the Governor. That doesnt apply to items that must pass through the Governor.