(06-21-2021 12:55 AM)GoodOwl Wrote: So, I ask again, show me in the Bible itself, where are the divinely specified table of contents? There exists none in the Bible itself. So who has the authrotiy to specifiy the Bible's contenets? The inly ones who have that Godly authority are those whom Christ himself gave that authority...the leaders of his own aporstolic church and their designated successors. Why? Because Christ gave them the authority to decide on earth, and said God bakcd up their decisions. So why do you add something not in the Bible to the Bible? Revelation says not to. Re-read the Gospel of John. It is quite clear.
And where in teh bioble does it say that only the Bible (which, remember did not exist in the form we know it today until several centuries after the death of Christ) does the doctirne and words "solo scriptura" specify? It does not. So that is something that someone added latrer. King James did not luve until the middle ages, yet many ascribe his version as the one bible? Where in the heck is the verse that specifies King james of England? It does not...that is aded, and it itslef is a non-biblical idea. Is the King James a good translation? For the most part yes. Is it the sole authority? No, not according to its own words contained in its own language. It is self-refuting, yet people ahve for centuries been bludgeoned into reapeating the mantra, much like the communistst repeat: We are at war with eastasia; we have always been at war with eastasia." It does not make it any more true. yet every King James version contains the qords of Christ, which many of its followers ignore: "This IS my body, This IS my blood." "You are the rock, and upon this rock I build my church. Whosoever's sins you deem to forgive here on earth, they are forgiven in heaven." Et cetera, et cetera.
People are certainly free to use their own will to follow something or someone else; as for me and my family, we follow God, and therefore, His Designated Church on this Earth.
My man the first century of the church had most of the modern Bible. They had the entire OT and had copies of Pauls letters and the Gospels circulating throughout the Christian world. The claim that we did not have the Bible until King James is just patently false and totally denies early church history.
We have some 180 thousand letters of the early church fathers in the first 3 centuries of the church and you can recreate the entire NT just from them quoting it in their letters. I don't think you are trying to be dishonest, I think you just blindly accepted what you were taught and never actually bothered to fact check any of it or study early church writings and history. Thus you are just totally unaware of theses documented FACTS.
This is not a debatable issue, its well documented in the early church. Its no different then when people claim the books of the NT were not decided upon until the 4th century and the Nicean councils. Its a total lie, mostly told out of ignorance of the early church history and early church writings.
We don't think or suppose, WE KNOW FOR A FACT that we believe in the same 27 books the early chruch fathers believed to be divine scripture. All we have to do is examine what they wrote, we can fully confirm this 2 centuries BEFORE the Nicean councils. The councils came about because so many false books and gospels began to crop up in the 3rd century that it became necessary to draw a clear distinction between the accepted canon from the early church and the false books that were exploding on the scene.
Not only do we KNOW we have the same books as the early church, we KNOW we have the same words because we have so many early copies and quotes from those same church fathers.
Don't blindly take my word for it either, study the early church writings for yourself and confirm these things for yourself like I did.
Or just open your Bible and READ IT, you will find multiple places in the NT where the Apostles tell the early Christians to always read and teach the scriptures in the churches, and how they have questions for Paul about the scriptures. How are they telling Gentile Christians to read the scriptures in church if none exists? We even have verses where Paul quotes the Gospels as scripture, and Peter testifies that Pauls letters are Holy scripture telling all believers to accept them as such.
YES, they had NT scriptures in the first generation of the church age and taught them in the churches, as well as the entire OT scriptures.
If you don't know this then:
1- you are not read most of the NT
2- you have not read or studied early church history