(03-29-2018 01:55 PM)Mr_XcentricK Wrote: (03-28-2018 10:38 PM)Attackcoog Wrote: (03-28-2018 09:53 PM)Owl 69/70/75 Wrote: (03-28-2018 08:34 PM)Mr_XcentricK Wrote: (03-28-2018 02:49 PM)CG_Hawk06 Wrote: That's BS, and quite easy BS to call you on.
We've been fighting wars for the last 50+ years against often civilian-led forces carrying AK-47s, etc and not handily winning anything... with the world's best trained military. The tactical advantage is always on the side of the defender. Our populace's capability to own firearms also acts as a deterrent to foreign governments interested in putting troops on American soil. To state otherwise is absolute BS.
Advantage goes to an trained, entrenched defender. "Disciplined troops with well-trained and experienced leaders will be able to make tactical decisions that may render a given defender’s advantages moot, or significantly enhance the defensive battle plan (depending on which side they fall)." I would also add to that a unit that can communicate well, usually comes with training, is going to have an advantage
“A free people ought not only to be armed, but disciplined; to which end a uniform and well-digested plan is requisite; and their safety and interest require that they should promote such manufactories as tend to render them independent of others for essential, particularly military, supplies.” – George Washington
The devil is in the details. You guys always want to leave out the well regulated part of the 2nd.
Not leave it out, just realize that per the rules of English grammar, "well-regulated" applies to the militia and not to the right to bear arms, which very clearly "shall not be infringed."
Correct. In fact, the truth is many of the founding fathers didnt want the Bill of Rights attached the constitution for just this type of debate. The wanted a very very limited government and they felt that a Bill of Rights might be misinterpeted as giving the people ONLY those rights. Thier intention was just the opposite---they wanted the constitution to be read as "any right not EXPRESSLY given to the governnent was retained by the people". They would laugh at folks who now try to claim that the second amendment clause is limited to just militias or for hunting. Remember the context. These guys had just overthrown an overbearing government. They wanted citizens to have the ability to protect themselves from any threat---including the government.
That is one interpretation of the language. You can find experts that can argue effectively for both sides. I happen to disagree with you. Why is it that while people want to argue what the forefathers meant you completely ignore the other quote from whom many would consider out most important fore father. The one the lead us in the fight against tyranny. “A free people ought not only to be armed, but disciplined; to which end a uniform and well-digested plan is requisite..." Hmmmm that would be a militia right?
The enormous thing that cuts across your 'militia' argument (and the concept that the 2nd amendment is not an individual right but help broadly across the 'people') is the Constitution itself.
Name *one* right that has ever been found to be this weird ass construct that the left always throws out there? Just one. Interesting view point (to say the least) that *every* single right in Bill of Rights (aside from the 10th) is in fact an individual right, *but* the 2nd. I mean, where the **** else does a weird ass **** type of 'group right' *ever* come into the Bill of Rights, let alone the *entire* body of rights (including the implied rights of voting, to run for office, and to freely travel), ever come into play?
Short answer: it doesnt. Ever.
Second, cite *any* single portion of the Federalist Papers (or Anti-Federalist Papers) where such a weird ass 'group' right exists? Again, short answer: Never.
Third, cite *any* then-existing state constitution (that is in force in 1781) that creates a 'group' right for arms? Again, short answer: all mention of rights pertaining to bearing arms in existent state constitutions are explicitly individual rights.
Fourth, cite *any* then-existing state constitution (that is in force in 1781) that creates *any* weird ass 'group' right for *anything*? Once again, short answer: all mention of rights in then existent state constitutions are explicitly individual rights.
Finally, in *every*single instance where the 'people' is mentioned both in the main body of the Constitution and in the Bill of Rights, *every* single instance refers to individual rights.
But apparently, with *all* these source completely and absolutely bereft of *any* mention of some weird godforsaken 'group' right in any fing context, you seemingly think that the *only* place in all these base source materials that a weird as **** 'group' right exists, and the *only* place where where the term 'people' should *not* refer to an individual right in the entire body of the Constitution is magically in the 2nd Amendment.
Got it. Makes crystal clear sense to me. [sarcasm off] Yep, the liberal methodology of interpretation really works well to opine that the 2nd Amendment is a 'group' right of militias as opposed to an individual right. Especially given *all* the massive support in the base material *and* the primary sources. I mean, why let all that base material and primary source material stand in the way of a uniquely odd and strange 'group' right.... [sarcasm *really* off]