RE: Alleged?
I didn't actually intend to speak for Scalia... I Have no reason to defend or attack him. I merely intended to put forth a rational alternative to the supposition that once the game is played, it is over.
Scalia said, the court has never held that the constitution forbids the execution of a justly convicted person, even if he is later determined by a court to be not guilty. I am going from memory, but I think I'm close.
You seem to agree that the court has never held what he says it has never held... So I don't see what is wrong with the comment on its own. One projection of this comment is what was stated, that if you play the game and lose, you are out of luck, even if you are "actually" innocent. Another is what I stated... That the expectation is that if someone is actually innocent, as opposed to merely being "held by a court to be so", that the tools and methods to correct the incorrect original decision exist. It is pretty difficult to convict someone of murder without a body. If a jury convicts someone for murder, it is certainly POSSIBLE that the person shows up 80 years later to prove him not guilty. If the jury found this probability, based on the evidence, to be beyond a reasonable doubt, and appellate courts determine that the criteria was justly applied... Then it makes sense to me that we shouldn't have to wait until it is actually impossible for that person to be found alive to execute someone convicted of their murder. I mean, how long could that be? Arguably, 100+ years.
Having a court find you not guilty is not proof that you didn't do it... See OJ. When courts disagree, one must assume that there was either something different presented at the two trials (new evidence) or that the burdens of proof were different... Say a state murder charge versus a federal hate crime murder charge.
I guess I'm trying to imagine the situation where someone is convicted of murder without a body so that the supposed victim COULD actually prove him not guilty (factually innocent as opposed to legally not guilty) where the conviction is upheld by numerous courts and not stayed by any governor and the person executed... And the remoteness of that situation versus the only rational solution if one actually feared this possibility was reasonable, and that would be to never allow execution... Because it is ALWAYS possible, no matter how remote, that someone's long lost and previously unknown twin was the actual victim and not the supposed victim... So although the evidence shows they killed someone, it turns out the "whom" was wrong, which could invalidate the conviction... Even one where the DNA was legally conclusive.
I'm obviously stretching the bounds of logic, but only because I think Stephens is doing so. How would someone get convicted, have that conviction be upheld as fair and impartial, and then have another court find him not guilty and that result, if ALSO fair and impartial be ignored? The entire scenario escapes me. The ONLY example that comes to mind would be a retrial of someone based on DNA evidence not available at the time, after the execution, that exonerates them.... Which brings us to scalias comment... That the court has never held that the constitution prohibits what happened. Does it? They were given a fair trial. The fact that trials have become even MORE fair, and may someday allow for us to enter people's minds and see what actually happened as opposed to merely making expert guesses doesn't preclude us constitutionally from meting out punishment based upon the best science and technology available at the time.
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