(08-12-2014 04:43 PM)jh Wrote: (08-12-2014 01:55 PM)pharaoh0 Wrote: I am not even getting into the "gay" thing here. But, let's clear some things up. The original colonies and later states are plenary governments. That means they have all of the sticks in a bundle, unless their citizens want to take some back. In order to form the United States, these states gave some of these sticks to the federal government. The federal government has NO power over issues for which the state has not given it a stick.
With the ratification of the Constitution, it was the people of the states who took sticks from the state governments and gave them to the federal government, not the states themselves. And the passage of the Fourteenth Amendment gave the federal government a very large stick to use against the states.
Quote:Moreover, no SCOTUS decision has done either of the following: (1) ruled that sexual orientation is a federally protected class or (2) asserted that the stick regarding marriage is somehow not entirely within the purview of the state. The 2nd point is never going to happen given the heavy precedent...that is, SCOTUS has always stated that marriage is exclusively a state issue. The question is whether gays, or more succinctly, sexual orientation creates the type of discrete and insular minorities, such that they would require protection from the federal government under the equal protection statute. SCOTUS has not done this. Even if they did, the question would be under what basis would states have to overcome in order to create a system that would treat people of different sexual orientations differently.
So far, many of the Courts have gone beyond anything SCOTUS has done. SCOTUS has had several bites at this apple and have yet to explicitly state sexual orientation is a federally protected class, like the lower Courts.
You are correct that the Supreme Court has never declared gays to be a discrete and insular minority worthy of heightened scrutiny. But they haven't needed to when striking down anti-gay laws. Instead, they ruled that those laws were motivated solely by animus and thus failed to be even rationally related to any legitimate function of government. These laws have failed the rational basis test (the real rational basis test, not the hypothetical rational basis test typically used).
And I don't think the lower court judges have necessarily gone beyond the Supreme Court (although I haven't read their decisions). Writing in dissent in Lawrence Scalia complained that the decision would make the eventual legalization of gay marriage inevitable. Have these judges decided that gays were entitled to protected status or have they merely recognized the same thing that Scalia did.
Exactly... Rational Basis has been enough to overturn these laws and as a result the court is unlikely to even need to label homosexuals a suspect classification entitled to strict scrutiny.
Having said that, marriage has traditionally been defined by the states and will continue to generally be under the purview of the states provided it does not violate the equal protection clause, due process clause or full, faith and credit clause.
I have a very hard time seeing the Supreme Court ruling that a state can choose not to recognize a valid marriage from a state that has passed gay marriage. The full, faith and credit clause requires states to give full faith and credit to any public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of every other state. Marriage is a public act.
To violate the full, faith and credit clause and not recognize gay marriage a state would have to have a reason for doing so. In Windsor the Supreme Court held that there was not even a rational basis for the federal government to deny recognition of valid marriage and there is little reason that logic would not apply to the states (and why the tide of court ruling has been so strongly in favor of recognizing valid gay marriages).
There is also still the possibility that the court will apply strict scrutiny for marriage recognition (I think they should). This has nothing to do with suspect classification and has everything to do with the fact that the Court has held marriage is a fundamental right. To deny a fundamental right, one must have a compelling state interest and use the lease restrictive means in doing so. This is a test no state could meet. If a homosexual couple gets married in a state that legally recognized same sex marriage, they have exercised this fundamental right. For another state to say they will not recognize it, contra to the full faith and credit clause requiring them to do so, would be to deny them a fundamental right they have already exercised. If the Court were to use strict scrutiny in marriage recognition, no gay marriage ban would stand.
Of course as stated, most Courts have held that gay marriage bans do not even satisfy rational basis and have struck down because the bans are animus. This is consistent with what the Supreme Court stated just last year. I don't know that the Court is ready to say states have to perform gay marriage, but I'd be shocked if the Courts held states don't have to recognize validly performed gay marriages from states that do recognize them.